Constitution Law -MCQ

Answers are bolded.

1. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the “Right to Equality”?
   a) Article 19
   b) Article 21
   c) Article 14
   d) Article 32
2. The Doctrine of Basic Structure was propounded in which case?
   a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
   b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
   c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
   d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
3. Which writ is issued to compel a public authority to perform its duty?
   a) Habeas Corpus
   b) Certiorari
   c) Mandamus
   d) Prohibition
4. The power to amend the Constitution lies with:
   a) President
   b) Parliament
   c) Supreme Court
   d) State Legislatures
5. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with the Panchayati Raj system?
   a) 7th Schedule
   b) 11th Schedule
   c) 9th Schedule
   d) 12th Schedule
6. Which Article provides for the establishment of the Supreme Court?
   a) Article 124
   b) Article 124
   c) Article 32
   d) Article 226
7. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are borrowed from the Constitution of:
   a) USA
   b) Ireland
   c) Canada
   d) Australia
8. Which case established the “Golden Triangle” of Articles 14, 19, and 21?
   a) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
   b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
   c) AK Gopalan v. State of Madras
   d) Selvi v. State of Karnataka
9. The term “Federal” is mentioned in which part of the Constitution?
   a) Preamble
   b) Nowhere (Indian Constitution is quasi-federal)
   c) Part XI
   d) Article 1
10. Which Article empowers the President to proclaim a National Emergency?
    a) Article 352
    b) Article 360
    c) Article 352
    d) Article 356
11. The 73rd and 74th Amendments introduced:
    a) Fundamental Duties
    b) Local Self-Government (Panchayats & Municipalities)
    c) Right to Education
    d) Reservation for Economically Weaker Sections
12. Who is the final interpreter of the Constitution?
    a) President
    b) Parliament
    c) Supreme Court
    d) Prime Minister
13. Which Article prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
    a) Article 15
    b) Article 16
    c) Article 17
    d) Article 18
14. The concept of “Judicial Review” in India is borrowed from:
    a) UK
    b) USA
    c) France
    d) Germany
15. Which Article deals with the Right to Education?
    a) Article 21A
    b) Article 21A
    c) Article 45
    d) Article 51A(k)
16. The term “Secular” was added to the Preamble by which amendment?
    a) 24th Amendment
    b) 42nd Amendment
    c) 44th Amendment
    d) 52nd Amendment
17. Which case upheld the validity of Aadhaar with certain restrictions?
    a) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India
    b) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
    c) Shayara Bano v. Union of India
    d) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
18. Article 368 of the Constitution deals with:
    a) President’s Ordinance-making power
    b) Procedure for Constitutional Amendment
    c) Emergency Provisions
    d) Directive Principles
19. The power to impose President’s Rule in a state is derived from:
    a) Article 352
    b) Article 356
    c) Article 360
    d) Article 370
20. Which case declared the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) unconstitutional?
    a) Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015)
    b) SP Gupta v. Union of India
    c) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
    d) SR Bommai v. Union of India

Here’s the continuation of Constitutional Law MCQs (21 to 100) for AIBE, designed to cover key topics, landmark cases, and previous trends. Answers are bolded.

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MCQs 21–40

21. Which Article prohibits “untouchability”?
    a) Article 16
    b) Article 17
    c) Article 18
    d) Article 19
22. The “Harmony and Balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSP” was emphasized in:
    a) Golaknath Case
    b) Minerva Mills Case
    c) Kesavananda Bharati Case
    d) Maneka Gandhi Case
23. The President of India is elected by:
    a) Direct public voting
    b) Members of Parliament and State Legislatures
    c) Members of Lok Sabha
    d) Prime Minister
24. Which Article grants the Right to Freedom of Religion?
    a) Articles 25–28
    b) Articles 25–28
    c) Articles 29–30
    d) Articles 19–22
25. The concept of “Equal Pay for Equal Work” is derived from:
    a) Article 14
    b) Article 39(d) of DPSP
    c) Article 21
    d) Article 32
26. Who can remove the Vice President of India?
    a) President
    b) Prime Minister
    c) Rajya Sabha by a majority vote
    d) Supreme Court
27. The 44th Amendment Act (1978) restored which Fundamental Right?
    a) Right to Property
    b) Right to Property (now a legal right under Article 300A)
    c) Right to Education
    d) Right to Privacy
28. Which case upheld the validity of the 99th Constitutional Amendment (NJAC)?
    a) Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015)
    b) SP Gupta v. Union of India
    c) Supreme Court struck it down
    d) None
29. Article 32 is often called the “Heart and Soul of the Constitution” by:
    a) Mahatma Gandhi
    b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    c) Jawaharlal Nehru
    d) Sardar Patel
30. The term “Federal” in the Indian Constitution is inspired by:
    a) USA
    b) Canada
    c) Both USA and Canada
    d) Australia
31. The “Doctrine of Eclipse” applies to:
    a) Post-constitutional laws
    b) Pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
    c) DPSP
    d) Constitutional amendments
32. Who administers the oath to the Chief Justice of India?
    a) President
    b) President
    c) Prime Minister
    d) Vice President
33. The 9th Schedule was added to the Constitution by:
    a) 1st Amendment
    b) 1st Amendment (1951)
    c) 42nd Amendment
    d) 44th Amendment
34. The “Right to Privacy” was recognized as part of Article 21 in:
    a) Maneka Gandhi Case
    b) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy Case (2017)
    c) AK Gopalan Case
    d) ADM Jabalpur Case
35. Which Article deals with the impeachment of the President?
    a) Article 61
    b) Article 61
    c) Article 75
    d) Article 124
36. The “Preventive Detention” law is covered under:
    a) Article 22
    b) Article 22
    c) Article 21
    d) Article 19
37. The phrase “Procedure Established by Law” is borrowed from the Constitution of:
    a) USA
    b) Japan
    c) France
    d) UK
38. The Sarkaria Commission was related to:
    a) Electoral Reforms
    b) Centre-State Relations
    c) Judicial Appointments
    d) Federalism
39. The term “Cabinet” is mentioned in which Article?
    a) Article 74
    b) Not mentioned explicitly
    c) Article 75
    d) Article 78
40. The “Doctrine of Severability” is associated with:
    a) Article 13
    b) Article 13
    c) Article 32
    d) Article 368

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MCQs 41–60

41. The “Right to Strike” is:
    a) A Fundamental Right
    b) Not a Fundamental Right
    c) Part of DPSP
    d) A legal right
42. The 52nd Amendment Act (1985) introduced:
    a) Panchayati Raj
    b) Anti-Defection Law
    c) GST
    d) Fundamental Duties
43. Which Article empowers the Governor to issue ordinances?
    a) Article 123
    b) Article 213
    c) Article 356
    d) Article 360
44. The “Theory of Basic Structure” was first applied in:
    a) Golaknath Case
    b) Kesavananda Bharati Case
    c) Minerva Mills Case
    d) Indira Gandhi Case
45. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is:
    a) 545
    b) 552
    c) 550
    d) 540
46. Which case upheld the constitutionality of the National Emergency (1975)?
    a) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
    b) Maneka Gandhi Case
    c) Minerva Mills Case
    d) SR Bommai Case
47. Which Article defines “Money Bill”?
    a) Article 110
    b) Article 110
    c) Article 109
    d) Article 117
48. The “Right to Free Legal Aid” is derived from:
    a) Article 21
    b) Article 21 (Hussainara Khatoon Case)
    c) Article 39A
    d) Both b & c
49. The “Doctrine of Pith and Substance” relates to:
    a) Legislative competence
    b) Legislative competence (Union vs. State)
    c) Fundamental Rights
    d) Judicial Review
50. The 86th Amendment Act (2002) added:
    a) Right to Education
    b) Article 21A (Right to Education)
    c) Article 45
    d) Article 51A(k)
51. The “Collegium System” for judicial appointments was established in:
    a) SP Gupta Case (1981)
    b) Second Judges Case (1993)
    c) First Judges Case (1981)
    d) NJAC Case (2015)
52. Which Article prohibits employment of children in factories?
    a) Article 24
    b) Article 24
    c) Article 23
    d) Article 21
53. The “Doctrine of Laches” is related to:
    a) Delay in filing a case
    b) Delay in filing a case
    c) Abuse of Fundamental Rights
    d) Legislative intent
54. The term “State” under Article 12 includes:
    a) Government and Parliament
    b) Local Authorities
    c) All of the above
    d) Private Corporations
55. The “Residuary Powers” under the Constitution lie with:
    a) State Legislatures
    b) Parliament
    c) President
    d) Concurrent List
56. The “Right to Information” is implicit in:
    a) Article 19(1)(a)
    b) Article 19(1)(a)
    c) Article 21
    d) Article 14
57. The “Doctrine of Waiver” states:
    a) Fundamental Rights can be waived
    b) Fundamental Rights cannot be waived
    c) DPSP can be waived
    d) None
58. The “Oath of Secrecy” for ministers is mentioned in:
    a) Third Schedule
    b) Second Schedule
    c) First Schedule
    d) Seventh Schedule
59. The “Right against Exploitation” is covered under:
    a) Articles 23–24
    b) Articles 23–24
    c) Articles 17–18
    d) Articles 25–28
60. The “Principle of Judicial Independence” is ensured by:
    a) Security of tenure
    b) All of the above
    c) Fixed salaries
    d) Separation from executive

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MCQs 61–80

61. The “Doctrine of Repugnancy” is dealt with under:
    a) Article 254
    b) Article 254
    c) Article 246
    d) Article 248
62. The “Right to Clean Environment” is part of:
    a) Article 21
    b) Article 21 (Subhash Kumar Case)
    c) Article 48A
    d) Both a & b
63. The term “Gram Sabha” is defined in:
    a) Panchayati Raj Act
    b) Constitution
    c) 73rd Amendment
    d) 11th Schedule
64. Which Article deals with the “Abolition of Titles”?
    a) Article 17
    b) Article 18
    c) Article 18
    d) Article 19
65. The “Mandal Commission Case” is associated with:
    a) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
    b) Minerva Mills Case
    c) Kesavananda Bharati Case
    d) Maneka Gandhi Case
66. The “Power of Pardon” is vested in the President under:
    a) Article 72
    b) Article 72
    c) Article 161
    d) Article 123
67. The “Right to Die with Dignity” was recognized in:
    a) Common Cause v. Union of India (2018)
    b) Gian Kaur Case
    c) Aruna Shanbaug Case
    d) All of the above
68. The “Doctrine of Pleasure” applies to the removal of:
    a) President
    b) Governor
    c) Supreme Court Judges
    d) Prime Minister
69. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment (2019) introduced:
    a) GST
    b) 10% EWS Reservation
    c) Right to Privacy
    d) Anti-Defection Law
70. The “Zero Hour” in Parliament refers to:
    a) Time for voting
    b) Unofficial discussion on urgent matters
    c) Question Hour
    d) Budget Session
71. Which case decriminalized homosexuality in India?
    a) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018)
    b) Naz Foundation Case
    c) Suresh Kumar Koushal Case
    d) None
72. The “Contempt of Court” is defined under:
    a) Article 129
    b) Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
    c) Article 142
    d) Both a & b
73. The “Principle of Territorial Nexus” is related to:
    a) Taxation laws
    b) Legislative competence
    c) Fundamental Rights
    d) DPSP
74. The “Advisory Jurisdiction” of the Supreme Court is under:
    a) Article 143
    b) Article 143
    c) Article 131
    d) Article 32
75. The “Doctrine of Colorable Legislation” prohibits:
    a) Indirect violation of constitutional limits
    b) Indirect violation of constitutional limits
    c) Judicial overreach
    d) Executive misuse
76. The “National Commission for Scheduled Castes” is established under:
    a) Article 338
    b) Article 338
    c) Article 340
    d) Article 342
77. The “Right to Speedy Trial” is part of:
    a) Article 21
    b) Article 21 (Hussainara Khatoon Case)
    c) Article 22
    d) Article 14
78. The “Doctrine of Prospective Overruling” was introduced in:
    a) Golaknath Case
    b) Golaknath Case (1967)
    c) Kesavananda Bharati Case
    d) Maneka Gandhi Case
79. The “Preamble” was amended only once by the:
    a) 24th Amendment
    b) 42nd Amendment (1976)
    c) 44th Amendment
    d) 73rd Amendment
80. The “Power of Judicial Review” in India is:
    a) Explicitly mentioned in Article 13
    b) Implicit in the Constitution
    c) Borrowed from the UK
    d) None

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MCQs 81–100

81. The “Right to Internet” was recognized as part of Article 19 in:
    a) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020)
    b) K.S. Puttaswamy Case
    c) Maneka Gandhi Case
    d) None
82. The “President’s Rule” can be imposed for a maximum period of:
    a) 6 months
    b) 3 years (with Parliament approval every 6 months)
    c) 1 year
    d) 2 years
83. The “Doctrine of Incidental or Ancillary Powers” is related to:
    a) Legislative competence
    b) Legislative competence
    c) Judicial Review
    d) Executive authority
84. The “National Emergency” declared in 1975 was based on:
    a) War
    b) Internal disturbance
    c) Financial crisis
    d) External aggression
85. The “Right to Protest” is protected under:
    a) Article 19(1)(a)
    b) Article 19(1)(a) and (b)
    c) Article 21
    d) Article 14
86. The “Special Status of Jammu & Kashmir” was revoked under:
    a) Article 370
    b) Article 370 (2019)
    c) Article 371
    d) Presidential Order
87. The “First Law Officer of India” is:
    a) Chief Justice of India
    b) Attorney General of India
    c) Solicitor General
    d) Law Minister
88. The “Doctrine of Eclipse” does NOT apply to:
    a) Pre-constitutional laws
    b) Post-constitutional laws
    c) Fundamental Rights
    d) DPSP
89. The “Right to Silence” is part of:
    a) Article 20(3)
    b) Article 20(3)
    c) Article 21
    d) Article 22
90. The “Inter-State Council” is established under:
    a) Article 263
    b) Article 263
    c) Article 280
    d) Article 352
91. The “Power to Grant Punishment for Contempt” lies with:
    a) High Courts
    b) Supreme Court and High Courts
    c) Parliament
    d) President
92. The “Linguistic Minority” rights are protected under:
    a) Article 29
    b) Article 29
    c) Article 30
    d) Article 350
93. The “Doctrine of Waiver” is invalid for:
    a) Fundamental Rights
    b) Fundamental Rights
    c) Contractual Rights
    d) Legal Rights
94. The “Right to Marry” is implicit in:
    a) Article 21 (Lata Singh Case)
    b) Article 19
    c) Article 14
    d) Article 15
95. The “Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act” was upheld under:
    a) Article 14
    b) Article 15
    c) Article 21
    d) All of the above
96. The “Doctrine of Separation of Powers” is part of:
    a) Basic Structure of the Constitution
    b) DPSP
    c) Fundamental Rights
    d) Preamble
97. The “Right to Privacy” includes:
    a) Sexual orientation
    b) All of the above
    c) Personal data
    d) Marital privacy
98. The “Right to Fair Compensation in Land Acquisition” is under:
    a) Right to Property (Article 300A)
    b) Article 21
    c) Article 31
    d) DPSP
99. The “National Human Rights Commission” was established under:
    a) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
    b) Constitution
    c) DPSP
    d) Article 21
100. The “Right to Constitutional Remedies” (Article 32) can be suspended during:
     a) National Emergency
     b) National Emergency (Article 352)
     c) President’s Rule
     d) Financial Emergency

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Key Takeaways for AIBE Prep

1. **Focus on Articles 12–